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anonymous
 one year ago
If the statement, "If I am hungry, then I am not happy," is assumed to be true, is its inverse, "If I am not hungry, then I must be happy," also always true?
anonymous
 one year ago
If the statement, "If I am hungry, then I am not happy," is assumed to be true, is its inverse, "If I am not hungry, then I must be happy," also always true?

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mathmate
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@lulubj it's mathematical logic.

lulubj
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Well then No because the correlation is not causation

lulubj
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Also because statements that are true do not necessarily have true converses. We know that the person is always unhappy when they are hungry, but nothing in the sentence guarantees that if the person will always be happy when no longer hungry.

mathmate
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@xjessiix33 If a > b is true, then its converse if b>a, which is not equivalent to a>b. a>b \(\equiv\) ~b > ~a (its contrapositive).

mathmate
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0If statement P: "If I am hungry, then I am not happy," is assumed to be true, its converse, "If I am not hungry, then I must be happy," \(not\) always true. But contrapositive "If I am happy, then I am not hungry" is always true if P is true.
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