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Is this true? Explain why.
\[4(\frac{ 1 }{ 4 }) = 1\]

Do you know what multiplication inverse is?

reciprocal

A number multiplied by its reciprocal is always equal to 1.

\[a \cdot a^{-1}=1 \text{ for all } a \neq 0\]
This is just the multiplicative inverse property

Ok so what axiom system your working on ??

that would be false
because 3*1/3=1

I don't know what other answer you are looking for honestly