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anonymous

  • one year ago

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  1. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1434556398011:dw| this is your question, right?

  2. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Yes

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    alright so , take them separately first , f'(x) of e^x = e^x , and f'(x) of ln x = 1/x in the question, they gave e^(lnx) also , which is basically equal to x since the e and ln cancel out if you put them together in a function so what we are left with is f(x) = e^x + xlnx we know that f'(x) of e^x = e^x but for xlnx , since there are two functions being multiplied with each other, you use the product rule :

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  4. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    for the product rule you take one function as u and the other as v, and use the laws of differentiation that I wrote above to solve it and get the final answer

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    give it a go, and tell me what answer you get, and ill further help you if it's wrong :)

  6. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Okay

  7. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Would it be 1-lnx?

  8. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    nope, okay look : u=x , v=ln x du/dx = 1 and dv/dx = 1/x so if you substitute into the formula x(1/x) + 1(lnx) and simplify it further : 1+lnx

  9. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    So it would be 1+lnx+e^x?

  10. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    yup :)

  11. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Alright thank you so much!

  12. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    np

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