anonymous
  • anonymous
Consider a random variable X that takes on the values 0, 1, 2, 3. We specify the function f(x) = -2 + x. Is f(x) a probability mass function?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
SOLVED
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
anonymous
  • anonymous
Is it No because the first and second Kolmogorov axioms are being violated?
sdfgsdfgs
  • sdfgsdfgs
no, because f(1)=-1 n first axiom requires P(x) >=0
anonymous
  • anonymous
SO, then it is No because the probabilities do not sum to 1? I just realised the Axiom thing.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

sdfgsdfgs
  • sdfgsdfgs
do not sum to 1 will be the second axiom but f(x) does not even satisfy the first of being non-negative.
anonymous
  • anonymous
Ok thank you so much!
sdfgsdfgs
  • sdfgsdfgs
welcome

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.