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FredFredBurgerYes

  • one year ago

WILL MEDAL AND FAN! HELP BEEN WAITING FOREVVVERRRRR! Find the two errors in this two-column proof and correct them.

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  1. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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  2. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @Vocaloid @Preetha @welshfella

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    no angle E and it equals 180 degres

  4. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    mike that's not the answer read the proof theres an e

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    step 7

  6. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    please don't just do that I want an explanation mike.... which is why I tagged vocaloid

  7. Vocaloid
    • one year ago
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    ah, not quite sure about this one, I would wait for the others to get here

  8. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @skullpatrol

  9. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    can someone help me?

  10. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    please do not ask for help on other peoples questions.... I have been waiting on this for forever and a half....

  11. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    I cant help sorry. Its such a long time since I did geometry and the postulates were called different things in my time.

  12. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    :(

  13. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @uri @pooja195 @ganeshie8 helppp

  14. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @Miracrown @karatechopper help please!

  15. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @Abhisar help!!!!

  16. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    - also it was in the UK look like the errors are in the reasons.

  17. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    yes I believe so too, but I really hope someone helps me figure this out....

  18. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    what is CPCTC?

  19. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    CPCTC is an acronym for corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent. CPCTC is commonly used at or near the end of a proof which asks the student to show that two angles or two sides are congruent.

  20. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    2nd repost of this question, been waiting 2 hours... wow

  21. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @paki @kropot72 @Luigi0210 @sleepyjess

  22. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    I've done a google on postulates of equality it looks like 7 should be the transitive postulate of equality

  23. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    well that is half of it... now we just need the other error...

  24. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    check this out:- http://mycoggeometric.blogspot.co.uk/2005/11/general-postulates-duducive-proofs.html what do you think?

  25. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    I honestly do not know but it sounds right,

  26. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    maybe also - as there are 2 sides and 1 angle involved line 8 should be SAS?

  27. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @dan815 @nincompoop @Preetha @ganeshie8 @texaschic101 @Data_LG2 @jagr2713 @acxbox22 @Mimi_x3 @YanaSidlinskiy PLEASE HELPPPPP

  28. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    I honestly have no idea... but I hope someone actually comes to help us.....

  29. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    no- SAS presumably means 2 sides and the angle in between those 2 sides

  30. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @perl some assistance please?

  31. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1435172128577:dw|

  32. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    @perl

  33. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    the 2 triangles are congruent by SSS because the line OE is common to both triangles

  34. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    LE is congruent to NE and LO is congruent to NO

  35. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    so which reasons for which steps I am confused because I am tired

  36. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    I would put transitive reason for step 7 and SSS for line 8

  37. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    hmmm.... alright, just food for thought though, what is your take on this perl?

  38. perl
    • one year ago
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    The reason for number 6 is wrong

  39. perl
    • one year ago
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    You can only use CPCTC after you show the two triangles are congruent, not before. You need a different reason

  40. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    ah - that makes sense

  41. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    I see, so what would te reasoning be?

  42. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    I know what we used to say (lol!). If the 2 base angles of a triangle are equal then the sides opposite them are also equal ( or congruent as is said now)

  43. perl
    • one year ago
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    What's odd about this proof, you could delete line 6 and the proof would still follow logically. Lines 1-5 and 7 are sufficient for ASA

  44. perl
    • one year ago
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    Let me do something different. I have an idea.

  45. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    it says he mae two errors though.... what are they and what should they be corrected to? and okay

  46. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    is transitive equality correct @perl

  47. perl
    • one year ago
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    The reason for 7 seems odd as well. Because thats a congruence symbol being used.

  48. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    so how do we correct the two errors for the proof?

  49. perl
    • one year ago
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    the reason for 7 could be "all right angles are congruent"

  50. perl
    • one year ago
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    Do you have a book , i would like to check the theorems and axioms you use.

  51. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    is there a property for that?

  52. perl
    • one year ago
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    This is interesting here http://www.ohschools.k12.oh.us/userfiles/225/Classes/6019/4per2-6day3oct14.pdf

  53. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    yes, but this may be asking for a property of something as the answer I am unsure.. We use properties of this and that plus definition of such and such

  54. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    yes - that looks good

  55. perl
    • one year ago
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    I'm thinking this. 6. m<LEO = m <NEO Transitive property of equality 7.<LEO congruent <NEO Definition of congruent angles

  56. perl
    • one year ago
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    There is a definition of congruent angles: If two angles have the same equal measure, then they are congruent.

  57. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    yes that works thanks so much both of you!

  58. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    yw

  59. perl
    • one year ago
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    Fred it is correct?

  60. perl
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1435184442325:dw|

  61. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    It is a practice worksheet that I hand into my teacher, I have to solve problems based upon what we just found which I can now do.. I will let you know later if it was correct and thanks sooooo much!

  62. perl
    • one year ago
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    Can you see how ASA congruence follows from the previous steps: <OLN ≅ <LNO LE ≅ EN <LEO ≅<NEO

  63. perl
    • one year ago
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    also I don't like step 6 for another reason. You may have not learned that the sides opposite congruent base angles are congruent.

  64. FredFredBurgerYes
    • one year ago
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    yes, it all makes sense now! 8D

  65. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    iIl really have to get hold of a geometry text book for UK students and see how they teach geometry these days...

  66. perl
    • one year ago
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    As a corollary to this proof we have OL ≅ ON by CPCTC

  67. perl
    • one year ago
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    yes it would be nice if geometry was standardized, the way algebra is. Different books or countries sometimes use different 'reasons'.

  68. perl
    • one year ago
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    The level of rigor that is required in a geometry proof varies.

  69. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    yes I dont know what its like now but we never used the congruency symbol for angles . Just '='. Only triangles or other polygons were congruent.

  70. perl
    • one year ago
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    yes I've seen some books dispense with congruence symbols. It looks like this proof is more detailed :)

  71. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    Yes - we we never as rigorous as the US is .

  72. perl
    • one year ago
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    The original greek euclidean proofs used congruence, not equality, for the most part.

  73. perl
    • one year ago
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    One of the interesting things about geometry is that you can prove a lot of things without actually ever using 'numbers' .

  74. perl
    • one year ago
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    or measures

  75. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    Did they ?

  76. perl
    • one year ago
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    You would have to add an axiom that all right angles are congruent, though.

  77. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    yes

  78. perl
    • one year ago
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    for example you can say, the sum of the interior angles makes the same angle as a straight line.

  79. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    yes

  80. perl
    • one year ago
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    but i might be wrong about that. I would have to ask a math historian. This is a good discussion on congruence versus equality http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/68400.html

  81. perl
    • one year ago
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    There were also limitations on the use of numbers in ancient greece. They knew that there was no way to describe the diagonal of a square using ratios because it is irrational. They did not have a well developed number system like we have today.

  82. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    yes that's interesting

  83. perl
    • one year ago
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    Today we can prove all of euclid's theorem using real numbers and the coordinate plane. So called analytic geometry proofs. I don't know why we don't just do that.

  84. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    No the Greeks were more or less 'all geometry' Wasn't it the arabs and hindus who invented algebra?

  85. perl
    • one year ago
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    Yes and then descartes and fermat described geometric shapes using algebraic equation on the coordinate plane

  86. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    The word algebra comes for AL Jabra which means (roughly) 'the working out'.

  87. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    The history of mathematics is really interesting.

  88. perl
    • one year ago
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    You can prove that a line intersects a circle in at most two points using analytic geometry for instance. Some proofs are easier if you use vector algebra.

  89. perl
    • one year ago
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    In high school i was confused by the teaching of algebra 1 followed by geometry followed by algebra 2. Nobody told me the history behind these subjects.

  90. perl
    • one year ago
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    Analytic geometry gets a boost when you include the infinitesimal world. For instance using calculus you can prove easily such things as the formula for the volume of a sphere in terms of its radius. Using synthetic geometry or euclidean methods would be difficult to prove this. Archimedes has a proof I believe.

  91. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    oh ! I dont want to be rude but I've got to go . It's been an interesting conversation. My daughters calling me to take her shopping!!

  92. perl
    • one year ago
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    Take care :)

  93. welshfella
    • one year ago
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    ty bye

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