anonymous
  • anonymous
One type of colorblindness is a recessive, sex-linked trait that is carried on the X chromosome. If a colorblind woman and a man who is not colorblind had children, what chance would there be that their son would be colorblind? 0% 25% 50% or 100%?
Biology
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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katieb
  • katieb
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anonymous
  • anonymous
What do you believe the answer to be?
anonymous
  • anonymous
If so what is your reasoning? We will start here.
anonymous
  • anonymous
i think it would be 25% because one parent is colorblind and one is not. so like a 50/50 chance?

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anonymous
  • anonymous
50%***** sorry
anonymous
  • anonymous
Well if one of them is fully on recessive and one of them is fully dominant then that would be 100% dominance because if you put this in a pedigree chart then everything would come out Xx which means that dominant would take over all 4 squares.
anonymous
  • anonymous
that makes sense so 100% is the answer? thank you very much. does the medal mean you helped me?
anonymous
  • anonymous
no! 0% sorry
anonymous
  • anonymous
So if colorblindness is recessive but the next child would be fully dominant...this means that the child would have a 0% of being colorblind since the Punnet Square would reveal your child would have no colorblindness and the medal and fan to me would be much appreciated. Thankyou
anonymous
  • anonymous
yep i will medal and fan thanks alot
anonymous
  • anonymous
No problem
anonymous
  • anonymous
Any other questions that you have just message me and I will be of your assisstance

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