One type of colorblindness is a recessive, sex-linked trait that is carried on the X chromosome. If a colorblind woman and a man who is not colorblind had children, what chance would there be that their son would be colorblind?
Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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What do you believe the answer to be?
If so what is your reasoning? We will start here.
i think it would be 25% because one parent is colorblind and one is not. so like a 50/50 chance?
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Well if one of them is fully on recessive and one of them is fully dominant then that would be 100% dominance because if you put this in a pedigree chart then everything would come out Xx which means that dominant would take over all 4 squares.
that makes sense so 100% is the answer? thank you very much. does the medal mean you helped me?
no! 0% sorry
So if colorblindness is recessive but the next child would be fully dominant...this means that the child would have a 0% of being colorblind since the Punnet Square would reveal your child would have no colorblindness and the medal and fan to me would be much appreciated. Thankyou
yep i will medal and fan thanks alot
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