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|dw:1436204863057:dw|

@Astrophysics could you please check my work Love?!?!?!?!? :")

please check my work :)

therefore the distance between two nodes equals to 1 wavelength.

am i right?!?!?!?

why dont you ask ASTROphysics your first choice

hmmph :@

I asked for his help but he was busy and then left!!!! :"(

he's back!!! Yay :"D

@Astrophysics Please help!!!

lol im jk, 0.8 is probably right

|dw:1436241352910:dw|

Ummmmm^^^^............................................................o_OO_o

this is a little off topic......but you got mad skill dan!!! :"D

HAHAhahaha hahhaahha <33

did u hear that astro

sorry people my internet is being internet here -_-

\[v = \lambda f \implies f = \frac{ v }{ \lambda } = \frac{ 6 m/s }{ 0.8m } = 7.5Hz\]

that's what i got!!!

That looks good

What you think danni boi

but do you agree with what i said earlier?!?!?!

i can show u a proof for it

Yeah, good :)

ok so the distance between two nodes (0.40m + 0.40m) equals to 1 wavelength = 0.8m

|dw:1436242135453:dw|

yes does that equal to the distance of 1 wavelength?!?!?!?!

So 1 node is half a wavelength

Hehe, np ^.^

^_^