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YumYum247

  • one year ago

h

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  1. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1436204863057:dw|

  2. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    Since.... 1 Node = 1 Loop = λ/2 2 Node = 2 Loops = λ If one Node = 0.40m two Nodes = 0.80m Therefore the 2 Nodes = Wavelength = 0.80m, the wavelength is 0.80m To Figure out the wavelength, we're going to use..........V = f X λ Rearrange the formula so that we're solving for "λ" λ = V/f λ = 6m/sec /0.80m λ = 7.5 or 8Hz Therefore the Frequency is 8Hz

  3. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    @Astrophysics could you please check my work Love?!?!?!?!? :")

  4. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    @dan815 dear can you please help me????????????????

  5. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    please check my work :)

  6. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    the important question here i wanna ask you is that, does the length of 2 Nods equals the wavelength?!?!?!?!?

  7. dan815
    • one year ago
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    Frequency is number of cycles per second or in other words the number of wavelengths per second if the the wavelength is 0.8m and the wave is moving at 6m/s how many wave lengths did it move in 1 second? that is 6/0.8 so the frequency is 6/0.8 cyclces/sec or 6/0.8 hz= 6/8/10 = 60/8 = 15/2 Hz

  8. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    dear 0.8m is not the wavelength, that's just my calculations....The question says the difference between two Nodes is 0.40m. Since 2 Loops = 1wavelength, that should also mean that 2 nodes equal 2 loops = wavelength....am i right?!?!?!?

  9. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    therefore the distance between two nodes equals to 1 wavelength.

  10. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    am i right?!?!?!?

  11. dan815
    • one year ago
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    why dont you ask ASTROphysics your first choice

  12. dan815
    • one year ago
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    hmmph :@

  13. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    cuz i remember wavelength could be any distance between two success crests or trough or the the distance between them on the equilibrim....

  14. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    I asked for his help but he was busy and then left!!!! :"(

  15. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    he's back!!! Yay :"D

  16. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    @Astrophysics Please help!!!

  17. dan815
    • one year ago
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    lol im jk, 0.8 is probably right

  18. dan815
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1436241352910:dw|

  19. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    Ummmmm^^^^............................................................o_OO_o

  20. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    this is a little off topic......but you got mad skill dan!!! :"D

  21. dan815
    • one year ago
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    HAHAhahaha hahhaahha <33

  22. dan815
    • one year ago
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    did u hear that astro

  23. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    sorry people my internet is being internet here -_-

  24. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    \[v = \lambda f \implies f = \frac{ v }{ \lambda } = \frac{ 6 m/s }{ 0.8m } = 7.5Hz\]

  25. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    that's what i got!!!

  26. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    That looks good

  27. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    What you think danni boi

  28. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    but do you agree with what i said earlier?!?!?!

  29. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    The question says the difference between two Nodes is 0.40m. Since 2 Loops = 1wavelength, that should also mean that 2 nodes equal 2 loops = wavelength....am i right?!?!?!?

  30. dan815
    • one year ago
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    i can show u a proof for it

  31. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    Yeah, good :)

  32. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    ok so the distance between two nodes (0.40m + 0.40m) equals to 1 wavelength = 0.8m

  33. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1436242135453:dw|

  34. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    yes does that equal to the distance of 1 wavelength?!?!?!?!

  35. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    since1 Node = 1 Loop = λ/2 2 Node = 2 Loops = λ If one Node = 0.40m two Nodes = 0.80m Therefore the 2 Nodes = Wavelength = 0.80m, the wavelength is 0.80m

  36. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    Yes, 2 nodes will make a wavelength we can see this in your calculation as well notice 1 node gives \[1~ node = \frac{ \lambda }{ 2 }\] so 2 will give lambda :)

  37. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    So 1 node is half a wavelength

  38. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    Don't doubt yourself! You're thinking right, but you need to also compare the concepts to the math and see if it makes sense, :)

  39. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    Thank you soooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo much!!1 Love you so much!!! Stay blessed and cute as always!!!

  40. Astrophysics
    • one year ago
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    Hehe, np ^.^

  41. YumYum247
    • one year ago
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    ^_^

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