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|dw:1436204863057:dw|
Since.... 1 Node = 1 Loop = λ/2 2 Node = 2 Loops = λ If one Node = 0.40m two Nodes = 0.80m Therefore the 2 Nodes = Wavelength = 0.80m, the wavelength is 0.80m To Figure out the wavelength, we're going to use..........V = f X λ Rearrange the formula so that we're solving for "λ" λ = V/f λ = 6m/sec /0.80m λ = 7.5 or 8Hz Therefore the Frequency is 8Hz
@Astrophysics could you please check my work Love?!?!?!?!? :")

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@dan815 dear can you please help me????????????????
please check my work :)
the important question here i wanna ask you is that, does the length of 2 Nods equals the wavelength?!?!?!?!?
Frequency is number of cycles per second or in other words the number of wavelengths per second if the the wavelength is 0.8m and the wave is moving at 6m/s how many wave lengths did it move in 1 second? that is 6/0.8 so the frequency is 6/0.8 cyclces/sec or 6/0.8 hz= 6/8/10 = 60/8 = 15/2 Hz
dear 0.8m is not the wavelength, that's just my calculations....The question says the difference between two Nodes is 0.40m. Since 2 Loops = 1wavelength, that should also mean that 2 nodes equal 2 loops = wavelength....am i right?!?!?!?
therefore the distance between two nodes equals to 1 wavelength.
am i right?!?!?!?
why dont you ask ASTROphysics your first choice
hmmph :@
cuz i remember wavelength could be any distance between two success crests or trough or the the distance between them on the equilibrim....
I asked for his help but he was busy and then left!!!! :"(
he's back!!! Yay :"D
@Astrophysics Please help!!!
lol im jk, 0.8 is probably right
|dw:1436241352910:dw|
Ummmmm^^^^............................................................o_OO_o
this is a little off topic......but you got mad skill dan!!! :"D
HAHAhahaha hahhaahha <33
did u hear that astro
sorry people my internet is being internet here -_-
\[v = \lambda f \implies f = \frac{ v }{ \lambda } = \frac{ 6 m/s }{ 0.8m } = 7.5Hz\]
that's what i got!!!
That looks good
What you think danni boi
but do you agree with what i said earlier?!?!?!
The question says the difference between two Nodes is 0.40m. Since 2 Loops = 1wavelength, that should also mean that 2 nodes equal 2 loops = wavelength....am i right?!?!?!?
i can show u a proof for it
Yeah, good :)
ok so the distance between two nodes (0.40m + 0.40m) equals to 1 wavelength = 0.8m
|dw:1436242135453:dw|
yes does that equal to the distance of 1 wavelength?!?!?!?!
since1 Node = 1 Loop = λ/2 2 Node = 2 Loops = λ If one Node = 0.40m two Nodes = 0.80m Therefore the 2 Nodes = Wavelength = 0.80m, the wavelength is 0.80m
Yes, 2 nodes will make a wavelength we can see this in your calculation as well notice 1 node gives \[1~ node = \frac{ \lambda }{ 2 }\] so 2 will give lambda :)
So 1 node is half a wavelength
Don't doubt yourself! You're thinking right, but you need to also compare the concepts to the math and see if it makes sense, :)
Thank you soooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo much!!1 Love you so much!!! Stay blessed and cute as always!!!
Hehe, np ^.^
^_^

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