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anonymous

  • one year ago

Jason has two bags with 6 tiles each. The tiles in each bag are shown below: Without looking, Jason draws a tile from the first bag and then a tile from the second bag. What is the probability of Jason drawing the tile numbered 2 from the first bag and the tile numbered 3 from the second bag? 1 over 36 1 over 12 2 over 12 2 over 6

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  1. muscrat123
    • one year ago
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    r u trying

  2. anonymous
    • one year ago
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  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Yes

  4. muscrat123
    • one year ago
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    ok good

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @hotguy need ur help

  6. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @muscrat123 i took ur adivce

  7. muscrat123
    • one year ago
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    and what is that?

  8. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    That openstudyy is not for cheating its for help c:

  9. muscrat123
    • one year ago
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    that is exactly right!!! im glad u realized and took my advice

  10. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    c: yep and @hotguy u there? :/

  11. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @misssunshinexxoxo HELPPPPP XC

  12. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @muscrat123 would u be able to help :/

  13. muscrat123
    • one year ago
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    maybe. need to read it first @wil476003

  14. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    okiee

  15. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @manutd30

  16. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    ANYONE HELP PLEASEEEEEEEE im on a timed test and need help

  17. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    This isn't a graded test right?

  18. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    nononon

  19. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Ok, good.

  20. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    its for practice

  21. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    do u know the answer? by any chance or how

  22. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Well what's the probability of getting a 2 out of the 6 tiles? And what's the probability of getting a 3 out of the 6 tiles?

  23. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Nope, it's not

  24. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    hmmmm i know its over 12 doe right

  25. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Nope

  26. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    no.... :c

  27. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    the only possible answer is 1 over 36

  28. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @LegendarySadist

  29. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Multiply the probabilities \[\large \sf \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6}\]

  30. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    2 over 6

  31. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    yes? so my answer is 2 over 6

  32. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    thats the part i usually get confused on

  33. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    \[\large \sf \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6}~=~\frac{1 \times 1}{6 \times 6}\] @liana1026

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