anonymous
  • anonymous
What is the probability of rolling a 6-sided die two times and getting a 3 and then a 2?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
The two events are independent of each other. That means that the outcome of the first roll does not influence the outcome of the second roll. That being the case, the probability of rolling a 3 followed by a 2 is the product of the two individual probabilities. p(3 then 2) = p(3) * p(2)
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
What is the probability if rolling a 3? What is the probability of rolling a 2?
anonymous
  • anonymous
A. 1/3 B. 1/36 C. 1/6 D. 1/18

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mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
I see the choices. Can you answer my questions above?
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
A die has 6 possible outcomes. All 6 outcomes are equally likely. What is the probability of rolling one specific outcome out of the 6?
anonymous
  • anonymous
i wouldnt know sir/mam, that why im asking you guys for the answer
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
The idea with OS is to get help, I agree, but it is also to make you understand the material and not to just be told answers. We need to think this together and figure it out.
anonymous
  • anonymous
i see
anonymous
  • anonymous
so 1/6
anonymous
  • anonymous
would be it
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
Let me give an example with a simpler case. You have a coin. The coin can fall with the heads side up or with the tails side up. There are only two possible outcomes with the flipping of a coin. If I flip the coin, what is the probability it will be a heads?
anonymous
  • anonymous
1/2 for the coin
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
In this case, the probability would be 1/2. You are correct. In your case it is 1/6.
anonymous
  • anonymous
thanks kind person
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
Right. For the die, any one specific outcome is 1/6.
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
This is not the final answer.
anonymous
  • anonymous
really
anonymous
  • anonymous
so 1/3 :)
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
No. Read below. Now go back to where I wrote this: p(3 then 2) = p(3) * p(2) p(3) = 1/6 p(2) = 1/6 The probability of rolling a 3 followed by a 2 is the probability of rolling a 3 ___multiplied___ by the probability of rolling a 2. p(3 then 2) = p(3) * p(2) = 1/6 * 1/6
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
Don't add the individual probabilities. Multiply them instead.
anonymous
  • anonymous
ohhhhhh its 1/36
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
You got it. Remember for future problems. If each event is independent of each other, then the individual probabilities multiply.
anonymous
  • anonymous
sweet
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
Another way of thinking of this is to find all the possible outcomes of rolling a die twice and then seeing how many are the desired outcome compared to the total number of possible outcomes.
anonymous
  • anonymous
hmmm ok
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
If you roll a die twice these are all the possible outcomes: 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26 31, 32, 33, 34 ,35, 36 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56 61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66 As you can see, there are 36 possible different outcomes. You are interested in only one outcome, 32. 1 desired outcome out of 36 possible outcomes means a probability of 1/36
anonymous
  • anonymous
haha ok thats awesome. you are very helpful
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
You're welcome. Thanks.

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