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anonymous

  • one year ago

What is the probability of rolling a 6-sided die two times and getting a 3 and then a 2?

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  1. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    The two events are independent of each other. That means that the outcome of the first roll does not influence the outcome of the second roll. That being the case, the probability of rolling a 3 followed by a 2 is the product of the two individual probabilities. p(3 then 2) = p(3) * p(2)

  2. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    What is the probability if rolling a 3? What is the probability of rolling a 2?

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    A. 1/3 B. 1/36 C. 1/6 D. 1/18

  4. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    I see the choices. Can you answer my questions above?

  5. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    A die has 6 possible outcomes. All 6 outcomes are equally likely. What is the probability of rolling one specific outcome out of the 6?

  6. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    i wouldnt know sir/mam, that why im asking you guys for the answer

  7. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    The idea with OS is to get help, I agree, but it is also to make you understand the material and not to just be told answers. We need to think this together and figure it out.

  8. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    i see

  9. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    so 1/6

  10. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    would be it

  11. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    Let me give an example with a simpler case. You have a coin. The coin can fall with the heads side up or with the tails side up. There are only two possible outcomes with the flipping of a coin. If I flip the coin, what is the probability it will be a heads?

  12. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    1/2 for the coin

  13. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    In this case, the probability would be 1/2. You are correct. In your case it is 1/6.

  14. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    thanks kind person

  15. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    Right. For the die, any one specific outcome is 1/6.

  16. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    This is not the final answer.

  17. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    really

  18. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    so 1/3 :)

  19. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    No. Read below. Now go back to where I wrote this: p(3 then 2) = p(3) * p(2) p(3) = 1/6 p(2) = 1/6 The probability of rolling a 3 followed by a 2 is the probability of rolling a 3 ___multiplied___ by the probability of rolling a 2. p(3 then 2) = p(3) * p(2) = 1/6 * 1/6

  20. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    Don't add the individual probabilities. Multiply them instead.

  21. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    ohhhhhh its 1/36

  22. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    You got it. Remember for future problems. If each event is independent of each other, then the individual probabilities multiply.

  23. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    sweet

  24. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    Another way of thinking of this is to find all the possible outcomes of rolling a die twice and then seeing how many are the desired outcome compared to the total number of possible outcomes.

  25. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    hmmm ok

  26. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    If you roll a die twice these are all the possible outcomes: 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26 31, 32, 33, 34 ,35, 36 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56 61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66 As you can see, there are 36 possible different outcomes. You are interested in only one outcome, 32. 1 desired outcome out of 36 possible outcomes means a probability of 1/36

  27. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    haha ok thats awesome. you are very helpful

  28. mathstudent55
    • one year ago
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    You're welcome. Thanks.

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