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anonymous

  • one year ago

In humans, having unattached earlobes is the result of a dominant gene, and having attached earlobes is a recessive trait. If a woman with attached earlobes has a child with a man who is homozygous for unattached earlobes, which of the following best describes how the child's earlobes would most likely appear?

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  1. marihelenh
    • one year ago
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    All of the children would come out as Ee. They would have the gene for unattached earlobes heterozygous. Because of the dominant E, all of the kids would have unattached earlobes.|dw:1436839477849:dw|

  2. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    This is a falsehood. It is quite irritating that this is still listed in biology books and taught, but it is wrong. Nearly all of the classic dominate recessive gene systems in humans are not so. http://udel.edu/~mcdonald/mythintro.html

  3. Koikkara
    • one year ago
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    \(\large\rm\color{blue}{Welcome~to~OpenStudy!}\) Ofcourse,the result will be heterozygous dominant. To know how @jadekk Please (Ref:\) http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/5207ef52e4b01dd6868aa517 \(\large\rm\color{green}{Nice~to~meet~you~!}\)

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