In humans, having unattached earlobes is the result of a dominant gene, and having attached earlobes is a recessive trait. If a woman with attached earlobes has a child with a man who is homozygous for unattached earlobes, which of the following best describes how the child's earlobes would most likely appear?
Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga.
Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus.
Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
All of the children would come out as Ee. They would have the gene for unattached earlobes heterozygous. Because of the dominant E, all of the kids would have unattached earlobes.|dw:1436839477849:dw|
This is a falsehood. It is quite irritating that this is still listed in biology books and taught, but it is wrong. Nearly all of the classic dominate recessive gene systems in humans are not so.