## anonymous one year ago I'll give a medal and fan who answers this When looking at a rational function, Bella and Edward have two different thoughts. Bella says that the function is defined at x = –1, x = 2, and x = 4. Edward says that the function is undefined at those x values. Describe a situation where Bella is correct, and describe a situation where Edward is correct. Is it possible for a situation to exist where they are both correct? Justify your reasoning

1. anonymous

ok, I give you the simplest form to Bella, she said the functions is defined at x = -1, x =2 and x =4, her function should be $f(x) = \frac{x^2-6x+8}{(x^2+1)(x-2)(x-4)}$ because when we factor the numerator, it cancel the last 2 terms of denominator and it turns to $f(x)=\dfrac{1}{x^2+1}$ which is defined in all real number.

2. anonymous

to Edward, just let the numerator =1, and (x-1) instead of (x^2-1) in denominator, the function turns to undefined at those points

3. anonymous

They cannot be correct at the same time. That's what I thought