anonymous
  • anonymous
Number theory help. How did they conclude gh = 1? (at the bottom of page 17)
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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anonymous
  • anonymous
https://books.google.com/books?id=eVwvvwZeBf4C&lpg=PA3&pg=PA17#v=onepage&q&f=false
UsukiDoll
  • UsukiDoll
Oh I love that book. I've used it last year.
freckles
  • freckles
how far did you get because right before they say that they have d=ghd and dividing d on both sides gives 1=gh (Assuming d isn't 0 )

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anonymous
  • anonymous
@UsukiDoll yeah I like it too. Certainly better than the one wrote by Stein
freckles
  • freckles
also we know d isn't zero since it is given in the theorem that a and b are not 0
anonymous
  • anonymous
O: oh, I see it now.
anonymous
  • anonymous
The whole time i was reading d2 = gh d1 .
anonymous
  • anonymous
This question is a false alarm XD. I was having a brain fart :P sorry people lol
UsukiDoll
  • UsukiDoll
d = ghd ... when d was divided it left 1 = gh so g = 1 and h = 1 which are the only values that satisfy 1=gh
UsukiDoll
  • UsukiDoll
xD I'm still wondering how people master proofs x.x like I don't mind easy ones, but the hard ones are crazy
anonymous
  • anonymous
@freckles thanks for clarifying :)
anonymous
  • anonymous
You know what. While we're at it, can any one explain how they got 0 <= r_i <= b-i?
mathstudent55
  • mathstudent55
\(gd_1 = d_2\) and \(hd_2 = d_1\) \(d_2 = \dfrac{d_1}{h} \) Equate the two expressions for \(d_2\) \(gd_1 = \dfrac{d_1}{h} \) \(ghd_1 = d_1\) \(gh = 1\)
anonymous
  • anonymous
They said it's by induction though :/ @mathstudent55 thank you. I got that part :)

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