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anonymous
 one year ago
Number theory help. How did they conclude gh = 1? (at the bottom of page 17)
anonymous
 one year ago
Number theory help. How did they conclude gh = 1? (at the bottom of page 17)

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anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0https://books.google.com/books?id=eVwvvwZeBf4C&lpg=PA3&pg=PA17#v=onepage&q&f=false

UsukiDoll
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Oh I love that book. I've used it last year.

freckles
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2how far did you get because right before they say that they have d=ghd and dividing d on both sides gives 1=gh (Assuming d isn't 0 )

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@UsukiDoll yeah I like it too. Certainly better than the one wrote by Stein

freckles
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2also we know d isn't zero since it is given in the theorem that a and b are not 0

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0O: oh, I see it now.

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0The whole time i was reading d2 = gh d1 .

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0This question is a false alarm XD. I was having a brain fart :P sorry people lol

UsukiDoll
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0d = ghd ... when d was divided it left 1 = gh so g = 1 and h = 1 which are the only values that satisfy 1=gh

UsukiDoll
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0xD I'm still wondering how people master proofs x.x like I don't mind easy ones, but the hard ones are crazy

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@freckles thanks for clarifying :)

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0You know what. While we're at it, can any one explain how they got 0 <= r_i <= bi?

mathstudent55
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2\(gd_1 = d_2\) and \(hd_2 = d_1\) \(d_2 = \dfrac{d_1}{h} \) Equate the two expressions for \(d_2\) \(gd_1 = \dfrac{d_1}{h} \) \(ghd_1 = d_1\) \(gh = 1\)

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0They said it's by induction though :/ @mathstudent55 thank you. I got that part :)
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