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anonymous
 one year ago
Did i do this right?
Simplify each expression. Use Positive exponents
m3 n^6 p^0.
1n^6/1 = 1/n^6 now we put the positive n^6 back in it's original place.
m^3 n^6 p
anonymous
 one year ago
Did i do this right? Simplify each expression. Use Positive exponents m3 n^6 p^0. 1n^6/1 = 1/n^6 now we put the positive n^6 back in it's original place. m^3 n^6 p

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anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0uhhhh i think so i belive so

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1The rule for negative exponents is: \(\Large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \color{blue}{\rm a}^{\color{red}{\rm b}}=\frac{1 }{\color{blue}{\rm a}^{\color{red}{\rm b}}} }\)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1so, your expression is: \(m^3n^{6}p^0\) is that correct?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Okay 1n^6/1 = 1/n^6 = 1/n^6 now we put the positive n^6 back in it's original place. m^3 n^6 p How about now

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1you are still doing 2 parts incorrectly, not just the n^(6), but p^0 is incorrect as well:(

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1lets start from \(p^0\), ok?

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1The rule for an exponent of 0 is: \(\Large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \color{blue}{\rm x}^{\color{red}{\rm 0}}=1 }\) This is true for any value of x, but provided that x is NOT zero.  ADDITIONALLY: The prove for this rule is: \(\Large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \color{blue}{\rm x}^{\color{red}{\rm 0}}=\color{blue}{\rm x}^{ww} }\) (i am using w, but you can replace w with 1, 3, or any other number and the statement will still hold) \(\Large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \color{blue}{\rm x}^{\color{red}{\rm 0}}=\color{blue}{\rm x}^{ww} =\dfrac{x^w}{x^w}=1}\) (anything divided by itself gives a result of 1, but if x was 0 then we have 0/0 which is not defined. This is why I said every x but NOT x=0)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1So if any number (except 0) raised to the power of 0, gives a result of 1, then \(p^0={\rm what?}\)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1((Another NOTE: they didn't state that \(p\ne0\), it is their fault, but you have to make this assumption, to get the answer, or else it would be indeterminate))

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1p^1 ? you don't have that in your expression, do you?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0No, so do i leave the p^0 alone?

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1you have p^0, and you know that: (anything)\(^0\) = ?

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1(anything)\(^0\)=1 (as long as this anything is NOT zero)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1therefore, you can say that p\(^0\)=?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0But p has a zer exponent?

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes, so p\(^0\)= what?

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1So lets rewrite our expression \({\rm m}^3\cdot {\rm n}^{6} \cdot {\rm p}^0\) this kis what it is used to be, but we know p\(^0\)=1, so we can say: \({\rm m}^3\cdot {\rm n}^{6} \cdot 1\) and multiplying times 1, is not changing the value, so we can leave the "•1" part out. (right?) We have: \({\rm m}^3\cdot {\rm n}^{6} \)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1is everything making sense till this point?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Alright. Yeah so far.

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Because the p is = to 1 right?

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes, because p\(^0\)=1

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0So yeah i get it not sure why we need to leave the 1 out after solving the problem though. Is it because it's exponent was 0?

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1why we have to leave the "•1" out? Not that we must, but it does matter. For any number, if you multiply it times 1 you still have that same number. Multiplying times 1 is same, and just as good as, not multiplying by anything at all.

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Makes sense. Thanks for your help.

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1we aren't done yet.

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1So our new expression is: \({\rm m}^3\cdot {\rm n}^{6} \) And, this can be simplified more.  Now, if we can recall, I mentioned another important property, and it refers to negative exponents. This property is: \(\Large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \color{blue}{\rm a}^{\color{red}{\rm b}}=\frac{1 }{\color{blue}{\rm a}^{\color{red}{\rm b}}} }\)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1according to this property, \(\Large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \color{blue}{\rm n}^{\color{red}{\rm 6}}=\frac{1 }{\color{blue}{\rm n}^{\color{red}{\rm 6}}} }\) right?

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1same, but n instead of a, and 6 instead of b. good...

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1n\(^{6}\) = 1 / n\(^6\) like this, you mean?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Yeah forgot to put in my equal.

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1so, we had: \({\rm m}^3\cdot {\rm n}^{6} \) and now we know that: \( {\rm n}^{6}=\dfrac{1}{{\rm n}^6} \) So, we can rewrite our expression the following way: \({\rm m}^3\cdot\dfrac{1}{{\rm n}^{6}} \)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1then you can make it as 1 fraction, just the following way: \({\rm m}^3\cdot\dfrac{1}{{\rm n}^{6}} \) \(\dfrac{{\rm m}^3}{1}\cdot\dfrac{1}{{\rm n}^{6}} \) \(\dfrac{{\rm m}^3\cdot 1}{1\cdot {\rm n}^{6}} \) \(\dfrac{{\rm m}^3}{{\rm n}^{6}} \)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1if you have any questions regarding any of the rules or steps that were aplied or mentioned, please ask...

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0No questions, because you timing it by one which would make it the same number.

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1alright. G☼☼d luck
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