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anonymous

  • one year ago

In which way was the distinction "serf" different from that of "slave"?

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  1. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    A) Serfs can change their masters B) Serfs could attend church services C) Serfs can pass on their inheritances D) Serfs could move away from manor

  2. paki
    • one year ago
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    ur guess...? @uybuyvf

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    idk

  4. paki
    • one year ago
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    serfs were not slaves per say because they could not be sold and were not property but each were tied to the land . to be a serf was a form of politics in that serfdom was part of feudalism.slavery was a economic position... serf have more freedom them slaves and they are basically "part" of the house. for slaves they stay with theyre owners but, with serf they belong to who ever owns the land they live on...

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    so the answer is....?

  6. paki
    • one year ago
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    what you think...?

  7. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    idk...

  8. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    D

  9. SolomonZelman
    • one year ago
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    I will try to post the definitions a little diffetrently. Serf is a person who works the land of some Lord. Each Lord had a lot of land and many many serfs who worked this land (and lived on it), giving a share to the lord. Slave is literally a slave. It used to be that slave is like your pencil, shoe, suit, or like any other property. A slaveowner could do to slave whatever he feels like.

  10. SolomonZelman
    • one year ago
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    \(\rm thefinertimes.com/Middle-Ages/serfs-in-the-middle-ages.html\)

  11. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    A...?

  12. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    u should fan meh...

  13. paki
    • one year ago
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    i think yeah.... wat you say zelmon...?

  14. SolomonZelman
    • one year ago
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    The slaves weren't allowed to go to church, the serfs were. Can a serf change their master or more from manor? Even if they have a right too do so, they would be practically unable to ever do this. Serfs could pass on their inheritances to their sons. (why not?) (they do posess their own belongings acc. to the law at that time)

  15. SolomonZelman
    • one year ago
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    In m opinion both B and C suffice.

  16. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    idk....the answer no more...

  17. SolomonZelman
    • one year ago
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    B - (cuz) serfs could attend church, slaves can not. C- (cuz) serfs could pass on inheritance to their children.

  18. SolomonZelman
    • one year ago
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    more on B. Serfs actually "looked towards" church (for the most part). (Slaves were prohibited from going to church as I said before) more on C. serfs are independ, rather than someone's property. They work some lords land (and I actually think they have a right to change lords or move from manor - don't really see much difference between A and D). They work for lord, but they pay taxes. So, in exchange for lord giving them land, the serfs worked it and gave the lord a share.

  19. SolomonZelman
    • one year ago
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    So I think a serf can actually do all of the options, and slaves can not do all of the options.

  20. paki
    • one year ago
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    so you mean it's either B or C...?

  21. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    ...ig

  22. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    im choosing c

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