Insert_username
  • Insert_username
Why did the Emancipation Proclamation free slaves only in Confederate states? A- President Lincoln did not have the authority to remove property from U.S. citizens. B- President Lincoln did not have the authority to naturalize Northern freedmen into citizens. C- Northern legislatures had already passed legislation blocking emancipation. D- Northern legislatures had already passed the Emancipation Proclamation. I'll fan and medal anyone who helps! Thanks!
History
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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chestercat
  • chestercat
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Insert_username
  • Insert_username
I thought it was A but I'm not sure
paki
  • paki
The Emancipation Proclamation didn't actually free all of the slaves. Since Lincoln issued the Emancipation Proclamation as a military measure, it didn't apply to border slave states like Delaware, Maryland, Kentucky and Missouri, all of which had remained loyal to the Union
shamallamadingdong
  • shamallamadingdong
So from what paki said what would your answer be

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Insert_username
  • Insert_username
A?
paki
  • paki
yeah A is correct one...
Insert_username
  • Insert_username
Ok thanks!
paki
  • paki
my pleasure...

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