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  • one year ago

Can a rational number (not including 0, 1, or -1) be raised to an irrational power be rational?

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  1. ganeshie8
    • one year ago
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    I think I have asked this question sometime back \[(a/b)^x = p/q \iff x = \log_{a/b} (p/q) \]

  2. ganeshie8
    • one year ago
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    There exist irrational numbers that are logarithm of a rational number relative to a rational number base. So we're done.

  3. Empty
    • one year ago
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    Awesome thanks that makes a lot of sense!

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