A chef draws cookies randomly from a box containing 6 cookies of the same shape and size. There is 1 chocolate cookie, 3 almond cookies, and 2 butter cookies. He draws 1 cookie and then draws another cookie without replacing the first one. Find the probability of picking 1 almond cookie followed by another almond cookie, and show the equation used. Please EXPLAIN THE ANSWER

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A chef draws cookies randomly from a box containing 6 cookies of the same shape and size. There is 1 chocolate cookie, 3 almond cookies, and 2 butter cookies. He draws 1 cookie and then draws another cookie without replacing the first one. Find the probability of picking 1 almond cookie followed by another almond cookie, and show the equation used. Please EXPLAIN THE ANSWER

Mathematics
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Other answers:

@midhun.madhu1987
ok first time 3 almond cookies and 6 total
so \(\dfrac{3}{6}=\dfrac{1}{2}\)
Thank you for coming to help me @Mehek14. (:
next you don't replace it that means there are only 2 almond cookies left and 5 cookies in total
that means \(\dfrac{2}{5}\)
so multiply both of them \(\dfrac{1}{2}*\dfrac{2}{5}\)
Ok can you explain the answer all together please so i will understand better @Mehek14
sure
Ok ty
when you choose the almond cookie for the first time, there are 3 almond cookies and 6 cookies in total so the probability of getting an almond cookie is \(\dfrac{3}{6}\) which can be simplified to \(\dfrac{1}{2}\). when you don't put the almond cookie back, there will be only 2 almond cookies in the box and the total will be one less so the total is 5 and the probability is \(\dfrac{2}{5}\) to find your answer, you have to multiply \(\dfrac{1}{2}*\dfrac{2}{5}\)
Ok then when i multiply that i get my answer?
\(\dfrac{2}{10}=\dfrac{1}{5}\)
@Mehek14. Ok im confused whats the last two fraction for i thought u said i have to muliply those fractions to get me final answer
yes 1*2 = 2 2 * 5 = 10 \(\dfrac{2}{10}\)
simplify to 1/5
And 2/10 is the final answer @Mehek14
simplified to 1/5
so 1/5 is the answer

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