In Unit 1 exercises, 1I-3, it says use d/dx ln(1+x) at x=0 equals 1. Is that the same thing as d/dx ln(x) at x=1 equals 1? And isn't this what is actually needed in this exercise? So, is the idea that we're supposed to figure out that given the first, we've got the second? Seems to me that this could be clearer, but maybe I just don't got the MIT stuff....

Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)

I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.