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anonymous

  • one year ago

Now im really confused

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  1. anonymous
    • one year ago
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  2. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Try applying the rule of division: x/y=x*(1/y)

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    hmmm

  4. imqwerty
    • one year ago
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    If we are given (a/b) /(c/d) we can say that we have - a/b x d/c

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    All together i would get 1/60 but that is not an answer choice

  6. phi
    • one year ago
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    notice this idea: \[ \frac{ \frac{1}{2}}{\frac{5}{8} } \] multiply top and bottom by the same thing: 8/5 \[ \frac{ \frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{8}{5}}{\frac{5}{8}\cdot \frac{8}{5} } \] now simplify top and bottom

  7. phi
    • one year ago
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    the bottom becomes 1 and dividing by 1 can be ignored. we just have the top (simplified)

  8. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    4/5

  9. phi
    • one year ago
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    yes. the idea I posted is usually simplified to the rule multiply the top by the "flipped" bottom

  10. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    wow thank you im taking notes right now

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spraguer (Moderator)
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