anonymous
  • anonymous
Now im really confused
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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chestercat
  • chestercat
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anonymous
  • anonymous
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anonymous
  • anonymous
Try applying the rule of division: x/y=x*(1/y)
anonymous
  • anonymous
hmmm

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imqwerty
  • imqwerty
If we are given (a/b) /(c/d) we can say that we have - a/b x d/c
anonymous
  • anonymous
All together i would get 1/60 but that is not an answer choice
phi
  • phi
notice this idea: \[ \frac{ \frac{1}{2}}{\frac{5}{8} } \] multiply top and bottom by the same thing: 8/5 \[ \frac{ \frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{8}{5}}{\frac{5}{8}\cdot \frac{8}{5} } \] now simplify top and bottom
phi
  • phi
the bottom becomes 1 and dividing by 1 can be ignored. we just have the top (simplified)
anonymous
  • anonymous
4/5
phi
  • phi
yes. the idea I posted is usually simplified to the rule multiply the top by the "flipped" bottom
anonymous
  • anonymous
wow thank you im taking notes right now

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