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anonymous

  • one year ago

Which statement is true of women in the late 1700s and early 1800s? Most of them could vote, but few could own property. Most of them had very little education. They made up the bulk of the slave population. They were considered a moral and political force.

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  1. jagr2713
    • one year ago
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    what do you think?

  2. jagr2713
    • one year ago
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    You there @Mrsfinn7

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Women got the right to vote in the Western world after WW1. That being said they were ignored politically before and largely even after they could vote.

  4. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    Actually, it wasnt just Women who couldnt vote, women could vote, but the fact of the matter is, POOR men and women couldnt vote. When you're taught in school that "women could vote after WWI", its basically saying, women and men who were of poverty could vote, they only teach you a concentration of that in school. Anyways, women couldnt get education like men could. Theres your answer.

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    I agree with pandaexspressive

  6. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    What does the question ask PandaExpressive "most women could vote". I knew the answer to the question I just feel that providing background to eliminate some of the more obvious answers is more helpful then just blurting out the answer. Men gained universal sufferage in the mid 1800's by the way so poor or rich they could vote before WW1.

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