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anonymous
 one year ago
When doing the Thevenin/Norton equivalent circuits, does the resistance somehow get changed into conductance? I'm working on a question and I'm not sure how/why the resistance became conductance.
anonymous
 one year ago
When doing the Thevenin/Norton equivalent circuits, does the resistance somehow get changed into conductance? I'm working on a question and I'm not sure how/why the resistance became conductance.

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KenLJW
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0The Thevinin and Norton equivatent circuts both have the same internal resistance, usually expressed Rth. Whether some is expressed in conductance, 1/R, is generally irrevalent. When doing Loop/Mesh analysis resistance is expressed in Ohms, in doing Nodal analysis it usually expressed in conductance, 1/Ohms. This allows for straight forward standard Matrixes for solving problems.

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0G=1/R = I/V ** I=GV  G=I/V V=I/G so if you think, and you wanna introduce the siemens S, I=GV(**).And is also equivalent of (1)S=I/V. if you wanna know something more : http://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/siemensmho
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