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anonymous
 one year ago
Which of the following shows that f(x) grows faster than g(x)?
the limit as x goes to infinity of f(x)/g(x) = 1000
the limit as x goes to infinity of f(x)/g(x) = 0
the limit as x goes to infinity of f(x)/g(x) = infinity
None of these
anonymous
 one year ago
Which of the following shows that f(x) grows faster than g(x)? the limit as x goes to infinity of f(x)/g(x) = 1000 the limit as x goes to infinity of f(x)/g(x) = 0 the limit as x goes to infinity of f(x)/g(x) = infinity None of these

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anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i dot quite recall the rule, i think it was something like if they equal a finite non zero number they grow at the same rate but i don't remember what infinity and zero ment

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0so i know its not A , and probably not D

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1lets think of this logically. if \(\large\displaystyle \lim_{ x~\rightarrow \infty}~(~f(x)~/~g(x)~)=0\) then g(x) is growing faster and that is why when you divide f(x) by g(x) you get zero because g(x) is being larger and larger....

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1So it is definitely not B.

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1right, or disagree ?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i see your logic , i totally agree :D

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0thanks for the help !

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1\(\large\displaystyle \lim_{ x~\rightarrow \infty}~(~f(x)~/~g(x)~)=\infty\)

SolomonZelman
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Have you done LHospitals rule yet? just curious...
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