I was just watching session 2 Clip 2, where the professor solves for the area of the triangle formed by any tangent line to y = 1/x and the y- and x-axes. While he finds the x-intercept of the tangent in a straightforward manner, using the equation y - y0 = -(1/(x0)^2) * (x - x0), from the fact that the derivative of y = 1/x is y = -1/x0^2, making the equation of a tangent line to y = 1/x at some point (x0,y0) what I listed above in point-slope form. But when finding the y-intercept, he takes a shortcut using the fact that y = 1/x is its own inverse function. Can anyone explain this shortcut

Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)

I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.