• anonymous
I was just watching session 2 Clip 2, where the professor solves for the area of the triangle formed by any tangent line to y = 1/x and the y- and x-axes. While he finds the x-intercept of the tangent in a straightforward manner, using the equation y - y0 = -(1/(x0)^2) * (x - x0), from the fact that the derivative of y = 1/x is y = -1/x0^2, making the equation of a tangent line to y = 1/x at some point (x0,y0) what I listed above in point-slope form. But when finding the y-intercept, he takes a shortcut using the fact that y = 1/x is its own inverse function. Can anyone explain this shortcut
OCW Scholar - Single Variable Calculus
• Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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