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anonymous

  • one year ago

Does the graph represent a function that has an inverse function?

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  1. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1439844728190:dw|

  2. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @mathstudent55

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @mathway @mathmate

  4. mathmate
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1439844926682:dw| A function has an inverse if and only if it is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing. That means that the graph cannot have a horizontal stretch, nor goes up and down. mathematically, it can be written as f(x1)=f(x2) => x1=x2.

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    so mine is not a function

  6. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @mathmate

  7. mathmate
    • one year ago
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    I don't know, because there are too many imperfections in the graph to know if there is a horizontal stretch.

  8. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    what do you mena

  9. mathmate
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1439845685168:dw|

  10. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    |dw:1439845814209:dw|

  11. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @mathmate

  12. mathmate
    • one year ago
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    I still cannot tell. Go with the definition that requires the graph to be strictly increasing or strictly decreasing. That means the graph cannot hold two identical values of y when for two distinct values of x.

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