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anonymous
 one year ago
Jason has two bags with 6 tiles each. The tiles in each bag are shown below:
Six squares are numbered sequentially from 1 to 6.
Without looking, Jason draws a tile from the first bag and then a tile from the second bag. What is the probability of Jason drawing the tile numbered 5 from the first bag and an odd tile from the second bag?
3 over 6
4 over 6
3 over 36
4 over 36
anonymous
 one year ago
Jason has two bags with 6 tiles each. The tiles in each bag are shown below: Six squares are numbered sequentially from 1 to 6. Without looking, Jason draws a tile from the first bag and then a tile from the second bag. What is the probability of Jason drawing the tile numbered 5 from the first bag and an odd tile from the second bag? 3 over 6 4 over 6 3 over 36 4 over 36

This Question is Closed

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1can you answer this part What is the probability of Jason drawing the tile numbered 5 from the first bag ? you want the fraction: # of 5's in the bag divided by the total number of tiles in the bag

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0would my answer be 3/36 @phi

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1can you answer What is the probability of Jason drawing the tile numbered 5 from the first bag ?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0but the probability is 5/6

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1the probability of picking the number "5" from a bag with 1,2,3,4,5 in it is not 5/6 the top number in the fraction is the "number of 5's in the bag" how many cards are labeled 5?

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes. the idea is if you had lots of people pick a card from the bag (then put it back) about 1/5 people would have picked the 5. now we find the probability of picking an odd number from the bag: 1,2,3,4,5 how many of those are odd numbers?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0sry i take so long to reply :b

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes, so the probability of picking an odd number is # of odd numbers divided by total number of cards in the bag 3/6

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1the probability of both picking a 5 from the first bag and an odd number from the 2nd bag is the product (i.e. multiply) of the two probabilities (I guess you have to memorize this, as I can't explain it easily) so your answer is 1/6 * 3/6 multiply top time top and bottom times bottom

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1some of this should make a little sense. for example, if you had 1,3,5,7,9 in the bag, the chances of picking an odd number is 100% (they are all odd) and if we calculate # of odd divided by number of cards we get 5/5= 1 (or 100%) on the other hand if we had 2,4,6,8,10 the chances of getting an odd is 0 if we calculate it, # of odds is 0 and 0/5= 0 so at least those cases make sense, right?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0right, so my answer is 3/6

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1your answer is \[ \frac{1}{6} \cdot \frac{3}{6} \] to multiply fractions, multiply top times top and bottom times bottom

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0oh ok so my answer is 3/36 right?

phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes. 3/36 (or 1/12 if they simplify it... sometimes they will do that to trick you)

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0ok then, thank you !!! ^_^
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