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anonymous

  • one year ago

For every point on the graph of F(x), there is a point on the graph of F -1(x) with exactly the same coordinates. A. True B. False

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  1. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    would this be false because since the second F(x) is negative wouldn't that make the numbers negative and not "exactly the same"

  2. triciaal
    • one year ago
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    I think what you have would be correct for f(-x) but this is the inverse of the function f -1 where x and y are switched and would make it true.

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    so then it would be true not false?

  4. jim_thompson5910
    • one year ago
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    `For every point on the graph of F(x), there is a point on the graph of F -1(x) with exactly the same coordinates.` this basically implies that f(x) and its inverse is the same graph. That is only true for f(x) = x and things like f(x) = 1/x. It's not true for any random f(x) function

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    so its false?

  6. jim_thompson5910
    • one year ago
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    yes

  7. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    is that what triciaal said incorrect?

  8. jim_thompson5910
    • one year ago
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    what do you mean?

  9. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    nevermind

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