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anonymous
 one year ago
A lens of focal length "f" is cut into two equal halves then the focal length will be..
(A)f. (B)f/2
(C)2f. (D)f/√2
anonymous
 one year ago
A lens of focal length "f" is cut into two equal halves then the focal length will be.. (A)f. (B)f/2 (C)2f. (D)f/√2

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anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@arindameducationusc @irishboy123

IrishBoy123
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2actually this is more helpful http://hyperphysics.phyastr.gsu.edu/hbase/geoopt/lenmak.html seeing the sign convention explained pretty much allows you to ignore that negative sign so for the original lens you have \(\frac{1}{f} = K (\frac{1}{R} + \frac {1}{R})\) wjere K is just a proxy for the refractive indexes and R assumes its symmetrical: \(f = \frac{R}{2K}\) then if we slice it in half you have \(\frac{1}{f^*} = K (\frac{1}{R} + \frac {1}{\infty})\), same K as same materials, R = \(\infty\) for flat edge, so \(f^* = \frac{R}{K} = 2f\) would check that before proceeding

IrishBoy123
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2i think this allows you to effectively ignore that minus sign https://gyazo.com/ab233816634c5df31c11d0d53ce7fd8b

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Would you be kind enough to tell me whether it can be done from this formula or not??? 1/f =1/p + 1/q

IrishBoy123
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2of course you get the same result what is the formula, i used one from a legit website so i think it is reliable

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Can you show me how?? @irishboy123

IrishBoy123
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2i think you mean this https://gyazo.com/5dc884453c3bdefb5ec0da3141e13451 if so you could do pretty much the same thing \(\large \frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q} = \frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{R} = \frac{2}{R}, f = \frac{R}{2}\) \(\large \frac{1}{f^*}=\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q} = \frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{\infty} = \frac{1}{R}, f^* = \frac{R}{1}\) \(\large f^* = 2f\)

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Why you have written "R" in place of p and q because its not in my syllabus... @irishboy123
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