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anonymous
 one year ago
If f(x) = x+ tan x and g(x) is the inverse of f(x) then g'(x) is equal to..
anonymous
 one year ago
If f(x) = x+ tan x and g(x) is the inverse of f(x) then g'(x) is equal to..

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ganeshie8
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2aren't you trying to find the derivative of inverse at a particular point ?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0answer is 1/(2+{g(x)  x}^2) and i have no clue

Empty
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1That doesn't seem right to me

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0at a particular point it would be easy na

ganeshie8
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2maybe start with this : \[f(g(x)) = x\]

Empty
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Since it's the inverse I plugged it in to get: \[x=g(x)+\tan g(x)\] Then differentiate: \[1=g'(x)+g'(x)\sec^2g(x) \] \[g'(x)=\frac{1}{1+\sec^2 g(x)}\]

Empty
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Well that's why I said it doesn't seem right idk depends on what kind of answer you're looking for I guess.

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0thanks i get it... converting sec^2 g(x) to tan ^2 g(x) then substituting tan^2 from the eqn f(g(x)) = x
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