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anonymous one year ago "cos(ω' T) is by definition equal to one"? Explanation wanted! I can't wrap my head around it. I know each T is supposed to be one period. So it will always be 1, 2, 3 and so on periods; which then the COS will be at the top (1); however the ω is throwing me off. :S

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1. Michele_Laino

hint: by definition of period T, we have: $\Large \omega T = \omega \cdot \frac{{2\pi }}{\omega } = 2\pi$

2. Michele_Laino

therefore: $\Large \cos \left( {\omega T} \right) = \cos \left( {2\pi } \right) = ...?$

3. anonymous

Ah, thank you! Understand! Of course! xP

4. Michele_Laino

:)

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