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anonymous
 one year ago
"cos(ω' T) is by definition equal to one"? Explanation wanted!
I can't wrap my head around it. I know each T is supposed to be one period. So it will always be 1, 2, 3 and so on periods; which then the COS will be at the top (1); however the ω is throwing me off. :S
anonymous
 one year ago
"cos(ω' T) is by definition equal to one"? Explanation wanted! I can't wrap my head around it. I know each T is supposed to be one period. So it will always be 1, 2, 3 and so on periods; which then the COS will be at the top (1); however the ω is throwing me off. :S

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Michele_Laino
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2hint: by definition of period T, we have: \[\Large \omega T = \omega \cdot \frac{{2\pi }}{\omega } = 2\pi \]

Michele_Laino
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2therefore: \[\Large \cos \left( {\omega T} \right) = \cos \left( {2\pi } \right) = ...?\]

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Ah, thank you! Understand! Of course! xP
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