plearse teach me injective, surjective and byjective

- anonymous

plearse teach me injective, surjective and byjective

- Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com

Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)

- schrodinger

I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!

- anonymous

@zzr0ck3r

- zzr0ck3r

Do you know what a function is?

- anonymous

yes

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

## More answers

- anonymous

you are given variables and replaced by numbers for short

- zzr0ck3r

A function is one-to-one (injective) if every x in the domain maps to at most one y in the codomain
example
|dw:1441760363692:dw|
here is a non example
|dw:1441760400010:dw|
Does this make sense?

- anonymous

no. please explain

- zzr0ck3r

notice that in the first picture each element in the domain (the one on the left) gets sent to only one element on the right (this is the codomain)
Notice this is NOT the case in the non example

- anonymous

ok. so the first is injective?

- zzr0ck3r

correct

- zzr0ck3r

the second one is not because 1 and 2 both get sent to a

- anonymous

ok

- anonymous

in any function, every x maps to at most one y in the range

- zzr0ck3r

A function is onto (surjective) if everything in the codomain gets used up
example
|dw:1441760739646:dw|
non example
|dw:1441760788586:dw|

- anonymous

read this http://www.math.ucla.edu/~tao/java/MultipleChoice/functions.txt

- anonymous

ok

- anonymous

" For every x in X there is at most one y in Y such that f(x) = y."
Comment. Every function f has this property (they each map one element to one element, i.e. they are not "one-to-two"). However, this is not what one-to-one means.

- zzr0ck3r

A function must have 2 properties
1) it is defined everywhere i.e. everything in the domain gets used up
notice how surjectivity is sort of like the opposite of this
2) it is well defined i.e. each x can map to at most one y
notice how injectivity is the opposite of this

- zzr0ck3r

Ok @GIL.ojei
Is the following function surjective, injective both, or neither?
|dw:1441761073116:dw|
?

- anonymous

injective

- zzr0ck3r

why?

- zzr0ck3r

@jayzdd I think it is much better to start with a intuitive notion. this notation is not going to help imo. that comes next

- anonymous

a better definition for injectivity
distinct (different) inputs map to distinct outputs
formally:
if a ≠ b, then f(a) ≠ f(b)
this is equivalent to if f(a) = f(b), then a = b

- zzr0ck3r

@GIL.ojei why?

- anonymous

yes you're diagrams are good to explain the intuition.
i was taking issue with the phrase
'every x has at most one y ' for your one to one
thats true about all functions

- anonymous

because each maps differently and are all exhausted in the left

- zzr0ck3r

because each maps differently, is why it is injective
The fact that each gets used up is actually a property of it being a function.

- zzr0ck3r

Ok @GIL.ojei is it surjective

- anonymous

gil
no two x values map to the same y value.
agreed?

- anonymous

yes

- zzr0ck3r

OK @GIL.ojei is it surjective?

- anonymous

no

- zzr0ck3r

why ot?

- zzr0ck3r

remember that surjective just means that the entire codomain (the circle on the right) gets used up

- anonymous

because no single element of X mspd to two elements of Y

- zzr0ck3r

read my last comment

- zzr0ck3r

what you just said is true of all functions

- zzr0ck3r

It is injective because no two x elements get sent to one y value
It is surjective because every element in the codomain gets used up

- anonymous

oh ok

- zzr0ck3r

ok so when it is both surjective and injective we call it a bijection.

- zzr0ck3r

Here is what is important, and here is the notation that we use
A function \(f:D\rightarrow C\) is a relation with the following two properties.
1) \(a=b\implies f(a)=f(b)\)
2) \(\forall x\in D\) it is true that \(f(x)\in C\)
A function is surjective if \(f(a)=f(b)\implies a=b\) where \(a,b\in D\).
A function is surjective if \(\forall y\in C \ \exists \ x\in D\) such that \(f(x) = y\).
A function that is both surjective and injective is called a bijection.

- anonymous

ok

- zzr0ck3r

Now think about why these things are saying what we talked about above.

- zzr0ck3r

@jayzdd pointed out, in my very first post I should have said injective implies no two domain elements map to a single codomain element

- anonymous

ok buy i do not understand this

- anonymous

A function \(f:D\rightarrow C\) is a relation with the following two properties. 1) \(a=b\implies f(a)=f(b)\) 2) \(\forall x\in D\) it is true that \(f(x)\in C\) A function is surjective if \(f(a)=f(b)\implies a=b\) where \(a,b\in D\). A function is surjective if \(\forall y\in C \ \exists \ x\in D\) such that \(f(x) = y\). A function that is both surjective and injective is called a bijection.

- zzr0ck3r

buy ?

- anonymous

but

- zzr0ck3r

Ok well lets talk about the surjective
surjective says that no two different domain elements can map to the same y value, so if two things map to the same y value they better be the same thing
in other words \(f(a) = f(b) \implies a=b\)

- anonymous

ok

- zzr0ck3r

does that make sense?

- zzr0ck3r

The reason we are going over this part is because you are going to be asked to show a function is surjective and injective and this is how you do it.

- anonymous

yes thanks

- anonymous

when will you be online again sir?

- zzr0ck3r

most likely

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.