anonymous
  • anonymous
is there an inverse function for f(x)=(x)/(x+2)
Calculus1
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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chestercat
  • chestercat
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anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1441863610456:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
There is an inverse function for everything :P. First, replace x with y. This is done to make the rest of the process easier. Replace every x with a y and replace every y with an x. Solve the equation from Step 2 for y. ... Replace y with f inverse of x Verify your work by checking that and are both true.
Jhannybean
  • Jhannybean
That statement is wrong, not all functions have an inverse, only functions that are one to one. @Harry21

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anonymous
  • anonymous
whoa! now what can a rookie of 30 mins experience talk to a pro mathlete:P it was sarcasm .
anonymous
  • anonymous
this is what i did |dw:1441864162068:dw|
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
@Jhannybean is absolutely right. The best way to check is to swap \(x\) and \(y\) and then find out if what you get back is a function.
anonymous
  • anonymous
i gave the steps in written format :)
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
There is a messed up step \(x=\dfrac{y}{y+2}\\xy+2x=y\\xy-y=-2x\\y(x-1)=-2x\\y=\dfrac{-2x}{x-1}=\dfrac{2x}{1-x}\)
Jhannybean
  • Jhannybean
You're right up to \[x(y+2)=y\]\[xy +2x= y\]\[xy - y =-2x\]\[y(x-1)=-2x\]\[y=-\frac{2x}{x-1}\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
oops
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
\(y/y=1\) and when you divide one side of an equaton by something, you have to divide ALL terms by that one thing.
anonymous
  • anonymous
then how would you find the inverse function for|dw:1441864935207:dw|

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