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anonymous
 one year ago
F(x)=ln(x) g(x)=e^x+1. F(g(x)) must then be ln(e^x+1) right? Can you simplify this?
anonymous
 one year ago
F(x)=ln(x) g(x)=e^x+1. F(g(x)) must then be ln(e^x+1) right? Can you simplify this?

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dumbcow
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1e^x and ln(x) are inverse functions so: \[\ln(e^x) = x\]

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0No, g(x) is just e^x+1, as if it was 1+e^x without any parenthesis

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0\[f(g(x))= \ln(e ^{x}+1)\]

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0let me know if u need furthur help :)

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0oh btw you cant simplify further

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0or maybe write Near x=0, I suppose you could expand e^x,

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0because ln(1) = 0 and also ln(e^x) is also 0 because they are inverse pairs

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0So that makes it x+1 in the end. But the reverse, g(f(x)) = e^ln(x)+1 will also become x+1? Right?

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0dw:1442478053901:dw

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0no problem just tag if you need any further help :)

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0srry ln(e^x)= x not zero
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