Under which circumstances would a politician be most likely to ignore the results of a public opinion poll on a particular subject when making policy regarding that subject?

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Under which circumstances would a politician be most likely to ignore the results of a public opinion poll on a particular subject when making policy regarding that subject?

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At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

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It's possible a private group is funding him to make a certain decision in their best interest.
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I would say, if the poll is likely not to be reliable, especially if it is biased, then the politicians can safely ignore them. A very simple example is a poll sponsored by a group with a known interest in the question (e.g. imagine Lufthansa sponsoring the poll on "should the U.S. Government subsidize Lufthansa's flights in the us

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The poll indicates that public opinion on the subject is volatile (liable to change). The poll indicates that the public is well-informed on the subject. The poll indicates that the subject is only important to a very small, but vocal group. The poll indicates that the politician's position is unpopular with the public.

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