anonymous
  • anonymous
if a die is rolled twice, what is probability of rolling a 5 and then a 2? @misty1212 @misty1212 @misty1212
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
SOLVED
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
chestercat
  • chestercat
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
anonymous
  • anonymous
If there is one face with 5 and one face with 2 on a die, and there are 6 faces total, then the probability for each will be 1/6 When you roll a die, it does not affect the next roll, so it's going to be "the probability of this AND this" To find this type, you multiply your ratios. Do you think you can solve it from here?
anonymous
  • anonymous
no im stupid >-<
anonymous
  • anonymous
That's all right. Your ratios are 1/6 and 1/6, so your multiplication will look like this \[\frac{ 1 }{ 6 }\times\frac{ 1 }{ 6 }\] Then you cross multiply (NumeratorxNumerator, DenominatorxDenominator)

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
Does that make sense/do you think you can solve it from here?
anonymous
  • anonymous
im not good with math at all >~<
anonymous
  • anonymous
nm is 1/36
anonymous
  • anonymous
am i right
anonymous
  • anonymous
Yeah! =D
anonymous
  • anonymous
can it be simplified
anonymous
  • anonymous
No, because 1 is not divisible by anything.
anonymous
  • anonymous
will you help me somemore
anonymous
  • anonymous
Sure =)

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.