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anonymous
 one year ago
Lecture 3: Why is (cos(delta x)  1) / (delta x) equal to 1cos(theta) / theta ?
anonymous
 one year ago
Lecture 3: Why is (cos(delta x)  1) / (delta x) equal to 1cos(theta) / theta ?

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phi
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0can you make your question clearer? (cos(delta x)  1) / (delta x) is not the same as 1cos(theta) / theta .

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0He is referring to the geometric proof that lim Δx > 0 cos( Δx)1/ Δx = 0 . In the lecture, during the geometric proof, what actually gets proven is lim θ >0 1cosθ/θ = 0. The professor then goes and explains that, 1  cos θ/ θ = 0, then by multiplying both sides by 1, cos θ  1 / θ is also zero.

oathofoblivion
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Well, it is the same because the limit of the first term is 0, and the second term is simply the first term times 1, so it's no problem because 1 * 0 = 0

anonymous
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0because (cos(delta x)  1) is exactly equal to (1cos(delta x)). that makes no difference as 1*0 = 0
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