## anonymous one year ago If lim (x->a) [f(x)g(x)] then the lim is f(a)g(a). Would this be true? If f'(a) exists, then lim (x->a) f(x) = f(a) Would this be false?

1) consider $$f(x)=x-a$$ and $$g(x)=\frac{1}{x-a}$$ 2) differentiability implies continuity