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anonymous

  • one year ago

SHINY MEDALS!!!!!!

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  1. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    If (70)x = 1, what are the possible values of x? Explain your answer.

  2. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    sorry this is the q- If (7^0)^x = 1, what are the possible values of x? Explain your answer.

  3. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    @pooja195 @Kate_J2002 @blackfireskull @Nnesha

  4. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    answers is one.

  5. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    thank u

  6. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    because... 7^0 = 1. if 1^x=1, then x has to be one

  7. Compassionate
    • one year ago
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    Wrong.

  8. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    let me know if i was right

  9. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    how so

  10. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    ?????

  11. Nnesha
    • one year ago
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    \[\huge\rm (anything)^0=1\] (expect 0^0 i guess ) \[\rm (nnesha)^0 =1~~~(x)^0=1~~~~~(HELPMEPLZ)^0=1\]

  12. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    oh never mind it can be any positive whole number

  13. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    so...it's 0?

  14. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    because 1^3 and 1^100000 is always going to equal one @Compassionate

  15. Compassionate
    • one year ago
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    \[({70}^{0th})^x = 1\]\[1^\infty = 1\] Therefor, any number to the 1st power will be one.

  16. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    thats not the question, its the one below it

  17. Compassionate
    • one year ago
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    Asumming it is a posivie, whole integer.

  18. Nnesha
    • one year ago
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    \(\color{blue}{\text{Originally Posted by}}\) @Nnesha \[\huge\rm (anything)^0=1\] (expect 0^0 i guess ) \[\rm (nnesha)^0 =1~~~(x)^0=1~~~~~(HELPMEPLZ)^0=1\] \(\color{blue}{\text{End of Quote}}\) anything to the zero power equal to one now first apply the exponent rule \[\large\rm (\color{ReD}{7^0})^x\]

  19. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    so...@HELPMEPLZ!! it can be any positive whole number because one times itself equals one no mater how many times you multipy 1*1. right @Compassionate ?

  20. Future_Einstein
    • one year ago
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    therefor th e answer can be any positive whole number @HELPMEPLZ!!

  21. Compassionate
    • one year ago
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    More precise: \[\mathbb{Z}^+ \times (^0) [\times ({\infty+\mathbb{Z}^+})] = 1\]

  22. anonymous
    • one year ago
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    thx ill close the question now

  23. Compassionate
    • one year ago
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    Which would be the definite, mathematical representation.

  24. Nnesha
    • one year ago
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    and remember the PEMDAS rule Parentheses and then exponent good luck!

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