vera_ewing
  • vera_ewing
Pre-calculus question
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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vera_ewing
  • vera_ewing
ribhu
  • ribhu
its B...
ribhu
  • ribhu
replace f(x) by y and x by f inverse x.... and then solve.. you will get option B

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ganeshie8
  • ganeshie8
A function must have exactly one "y value" for a given "x value". Look at the options, all of them are of form \(y=\pm \text{somthing}\), which means, the \(y\) values are not unique. What can you infer fromm this ?
vera_ewing
  • vera_ewing
It is not a function, because there are more than one y value?
ganeshie8
  • ganeshie8
Exactly!
ribhu
  • ribhu
see when a function has a non zero derivative at a point then it is invertible in the neighbourhood
ganeshie8
  • ganeshie8
Answer is either A or C
ribhu
  • ribhu
and if it would not be a function then how can you calculate inverse of it..
ribhu
  • ribhu
i think it is a function. and answer should be B.
ganeshie8
  • ganeshie8
good question, looks they don't care about these fine details at school level
vera_ewing
  • vera_ewing
Well I'm pretty sure the answer is C...
ribhu
  • ribhu
so avoiding any complexity to the best of the data provided the answer should be B for sure
ganeshie8
  • ganeshie8
I bet my 10 cents on A or C
vera_ewing
  • vera_ewing
ribhu, I think it is C.
vera_ewing
  • vera_ewing
Ok, thanks for your help!! @ganeshie8 and @ribhu
ganeshie8
  • ganeshie8
I think, we may say the inverse of given function is a multivalued function. But, we cannot say the inverse is a function... @ribhu please enlighten me as you seem to have good real analysis knowledge :)

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