anonymous
  • anonymous
How does changing the function from f(x) = −5 cos 2x to g(x) = −5 cos 2x − 3 affect the range of the function? The function shifts down 3 units, so the range changes from −1 to 1 in f(x) to −4 to −2 in g(x). The function shifts down 3 units, so the range changes from −5 to 5 in f(x) to −8 to 2 in g(x). The function shifts down 5 units, so the range changes from −1 to 1 in f(x) to −6 to −4 in g(x). The function shifts down 5 units, so the range changes from −5 to 5 in f(x) to −10 to 0 in g(x).
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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chestercat
  • chestercat
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anonymous
  • anonymous
I think it's B @welshfella
anonymous
  • anonymous
@StudyGurl14
StudyGurl14
  • StudyGurl14
Well, you automatically know that it has to shift down 3 units, so C and D are out.

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StudyGurl14
  • StudyGurl14
The easiest thing would be to graph it to find out the rest. REmember that range is the y values of the function
anonymous
  • anonymous
Yeah, I got that far. That's why I said B:) Was that right?
welshfella
  • welshfella
yes the range of the second function is -8 to 2 each number -5 and 5 is reduced by 3
welshfella
  • welshfella
B is correct
anonymous
  • anonymous
Thanks!

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