anonymous
  • anonymous
Are the following equivalent statements? Why or why not? p → ( q V p ) , ( p Λ ~ q ) V p
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
this is the same as asking if p → ( q V p ) <-> ( p Λ ~ q ) V p is a tautology
anonymous
  • anonymous
So why is it equivalent, or not?
anonymous
  • anonymous
you can make a truth table, thats the long way

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Can you tell me right now without a truth table if it is?
anonymous
  • anonymous
they are not equivalent
anonymous
  • anonymous
to see this, plug in p = false, q = false

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